Historical Linguistics: societas

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Historical Linguistics: societas

Postby Anonymous on Thu Feb 03, 2005 8:35 pm

Salvete omnes.....

I am in need of assistence figuring out how societas got to look the way it does. Proto-Italic *sokiotats should yield socItas the way *wiota yields vIta, but of course it doesn't...it gives us societas instead. Sihler says this is the result of analogy...but analogy with what?!

Appia Vatinia Ursa
Anonymous
 

Postby Q Valerius on Thu Feb 03, 2005 9:32 pm

heh, you've actually got me totally stumped. I'd never thought of this before. It should be socitas, just like bonitas etc... Let me do some googling and see if I can come up with anything.

Oh, and welcome to SVR!
Q Valerius
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Postby Anonymous on Thu Feb 03, 2005 9:54 pm

Argh. Niedermann says that i+vowel or e+vowel goes to o before velar l and to e before any other consonant. This takes care of *sokiotats, but it seems to leave tibicen unaccounted for, since *tibiakan should therefore yield tibiecen. I am pretty new to historical linguistics (and Niedermann is in French, which I don't actually know)....am I just missing something here? Thanks for your help!
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