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Fw : Question

Postby Quintus Pomponius Atticus on Mon Oct 14, 2002 10:25 pm

Salvete,

Someone sent this question to me by e-mail. As I don't know a precise answer myself, I'm forwarding it to this collegium.

Why did the ancient romans and the people they conquered have their last names as places, like Jesus of Nazerith. did the romans force them to do that so they could keep a cencus or collect taxes. please let me know. I would be very grateful. Thank you for your time.


Valete !

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Postby Q. C. Locatus Barbatus on Tue Oct 15, 2002 7:47 pm

Salvete,


The Romans had three names, but how many did the other people have? Did the judeans have more than one name? Did the celths have more than one name?

I think they were given place names because there was no other manner to make some differences between other Jezi.


Valete,


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Postby Gnaeus Dionysius Draco on Tue Oct 15, 2002 10:19 pm

Locate, do I sense a hidden reference to "In de Gloria"? :D

Anyway... Romans didn't have placenames as their last names! The poster of this question (whoever the gentleman- or woman is) is confusing things. "Iesus" is definitely a latinised name, but is a transcription of the Greek "Ièsous". Greeks usually had only one name and if two famous Greeks bore the same name they were referred to as "X from Athens" and "X from Thebe" respectively. Hence "Jesus from Nazareth". This wasn't really his last name, but just something to distinguish him from other Jesusses.

By the way, did anyone know that Jerusalem actually is a Latin name, derived from "Hierosolyma"? I came across this recently. Odd that it still survived!

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